Does the product of (x - 1)(x + 1) result in a perfect square trinomial? Why or why not?

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

When you distribute the two factors it would become a perfect square binomial because the -x and the x would cancel out leaving only x^2 -1, which is the difference of two squares.

No because the when you distribute it out it would be (x^2 -1) which is not a perfect square trinomial equation. Also it cannot be a perfect square trinomial because one binomial has negative 1 and the other has positive 1 which indicates that it is not a perfect square.

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

location: point 0

step-by-step explanation:

well, -8 to 10 on a number line is 18 spaces.

1/9 of 18 is 2.

so, 4/9 of 18 must be 8.

8 spaces from -8 (a) is 0.

so, 4/9 of the way from -8 to 10 is 0!