For a binomial experiment, is it possible for the probability of success to change from one trial to the next? I figure that the answer would be no, that as long as the trials are independent (a feature of a binomial experiment, right?), then it would not be possible for the probability of success to change, Am i understanding it correctly?

Yup you get it! (Probability doesn't change, it is constant for all trials)

Step-by-step explanation:

In binomial experiments, you have two conditions, a success and failure is how they often put it. In this experiment, the probability of success has to be the same for each trial to constitute it as a binomial experiment.

Basically there's 4 rule you need to satisfy for an experiment to be considered binomial:

1) Has to have fixed number of trials. Eg, n=1,2,3x x= finite number (we cannot have infinte trials)

2) Each trial is independent of one another. (One trial doesn't influence another trials probability/outcome)

3) Only two outcomes (very important) because as name suggests bi- (bi usually means two)

4) Probability of each outcome/condition is constant from one trial to another

the multiples of 15 are 15, 30,45, 60, 75, 90, 105, 120, 135, 150, 165, 180, 195,   210, 225, 240, 255, 270, 285, 300, 315, 330, 345, 360, 375,   390, 405, 420, 435, 450, 465, 480, 495, 510, 525, 540, 555, 570, 585, 600, 615, 630, 645, 660, 675, 690, 705, 720, and 735.

the factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, and 15.

hope that , fam!

-une, your fren : )

his first public project he is asked to create a small scale drawing. the garden is a right triangle with base 25m and height 30m. are you trying to solve for the last side/hypotenuse? the irrational form of the answer would be 5\sqrt{61}