Discuss the validity of the following statement. If the statement is always true, explain why. If not, give a counterexample. If the odds for E equal the odds against E', then P(E)P(F)=P(E∩F)

Correction:

Because F is not present in the statement, instead of working onP(E)P(F) = P(E∩F), I worked on

P(E∩E') = P(E)P(E').

The case is not always true.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the odds for E equals the odds against E', then it is correct to say that the E and E' do not intersect.

And for any two mutually exclusive events, E and E',

P(E∩E') = 0

Suppose P(E) is not equal to zero, and P(E') is not equal to zero, then

P(E)P(E') cannot be equal to zero.

So

P(E)P(E') ≠ 0

This makes P(E∩E') different from P(E)P(E')

Therefore,

P(E∩E') ≠ P(E)P(E') in this case.

step-by-step explanation:

ok so im not 100% sure but you would start by adding 5.1t and 1.9t beacuse they have the same variable. that is 7t.   then add -3.6 + 1.2 which is -2.4

so then keep that as -2.4 + 7t. i apologize if this is incorrect. best luck on your test < 3