Use known logical equivalences to prove that a → (b → c) is logically equivalent to (a ^ b) → c.

Answer:-

a ∨ ( b ∨ c )    ⇔ (a ∨ b )∨ c ⇔ (a∧b)∨c ⇔(a∧b)→c

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation :-

we know that   b→ c ⇔ b∨c

Replacing b→ c ⇔ b ∨ c , we get

               a → b ∨ c ,

By the same rule b→ c ⇔ b∨c

                     ⇒   a ∨ ( b ∨ c )

Now

 a ∨ ( b ∨ c )    ⇔ (a ∨ b )∨ c ⇔ (a∧b)∨c ⇔(a∧b)→c

7

step-by-step explanation:

i think it is everything has to equal 180 so, if i correct 4=c. 6=d. 8=a. 7=b. and the last question would be c. because they are parallel lines and they are congruent.

step-by-step explanation:

the reason everything has to equal to 180 is because that is how it works. i'm guessing that is its rule. 4 and 8 are congruent and parallel so, that would be 30+30 because they have the same number. it would equal 60. 6 and 7 are congruent and parallel so, that would be 30+30 because they have the same number. it would equal 60. 60+60 is 180. so, now you have your answer