DOES ANYBODY KNOW THE ANSWERS???Answer ASAP

so firstly, we need to isolate the y variables to be able to solve these inequalities. firstly, add 0.5x on both sides of the first inequality and subtract 1.5x on both sides of the second inequality:

now since the slope is positive for the first inequality, this means that the line going upwards belongs to the first inequality, and the line going downwards belongs to the second inequality.

next, since y ≥ in the first inequality, this means that the shaded region will be above the first inequality's line, thus shading regions a and b.

next, since y ≤ in the second inequality, this means that the shaded region is going to be below this line, thus shading regions a and c.

since both lines shade region a, this means that region a is the solution.

step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest!

∠cbe and ∠deb are same-side interior angles.

i took the test

so, converting firstly the mixed fractions to improper fractions and then "adding".

see attached

step-by-step explanation:

given the function as;

write the equation replacing f(x) with y

form   and fill a table containing values of y with corresponding values of x

you can take a range for   values of x as -3≤x≤3

solving for x=-3

for x=-2

repeat the same procedure to get the values of y for the remaining ,x=-1 to x=3

plot the values of y against values   of x and obtain the following graph