Answer ASAP for brainliest, 5 stars, and a thanks if your answer is correct.

answer: 414,377,008

step-by-step explanation:

just multiply it

so firstly, we need to isolate the y variables to be able to solve these inequalities. firstly, add 0.5x on both sides of the first inequality and subtract 1.5x on both sides of the second inequality:

now since the slope is positive for the first inequality, this means that the line going upwards belongs to the first inequality, and the line going downwards belongs to the second inequality.

next, since y ≥ in the first inequality, this means that the shaded region will be above the first inequality's line, thus shading regions a and b.

next, since y ≤ in the second inequality, this means that the shaded region is going to be below this line, thus shading regions a and c.

since both lines shade region a, this means that region a is the solution.

step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest!

answer: the correct answer is -32

step-by-step explanation:

required rate of return = 0.166 = 16.6%

step-by-step explanation:

under the capital asset pricing model (capm), the required or expected rate of return for a particular security or asset is given using the formula:

required rate of return = risk-free rate + beta*(market risk premium)

we are given that;

risk-free rate = 4% = 0.04

beta = 1.4

market risk premium = 9% = 0.09

we simply plug these values into the above formula;

required rate of return = 0.04 + 1.4*(0.09)

required rate of return = 0.04 + 0.126

required rate of return = 0.166 = 16.6%