Is ( ¬ (( ∨ ( ∧ )) ∨ ( → ))) logically equivalent to (¬ ((( ¬ (¬)) ∨ ) ∨ ))?

of course

Step-by-step explanation:

On the surface, it seems easy. Can you think of the integers for x, y, and z so that x³+y³+z³=8? Sure. One answer is x = 1, y = -1, and z = 2. But what about the integers for x, y, and z so that x³+y³+z³=42?

That turned out to be much harder—as in, no one was able to solve for those integers for 65 years until a supercomputer finally came up with the solution to 42. (For the record: x = -80538738812075974, y = 80435758145817515, and z = 12602123297335631. Obviously.)

well there are two answers for that.

1: you need 120 ones then that will equal up to 120.

2: you could also do one 100 and 2 tens.

those are the answers that i have thought of.