Create an absolute value equation with an axis of symmetry at x=3 and also has no x-intercepts

i think it's eleven too, don't woosh me here, but according to the "experts" it's 2.

the proof starts from the peano postulates, which define the natural

numbers n. n is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

  p1.   1 is in n.

  p2.   if x is in n, then its "successor" x' is in n.

  p3.   there is no x such that x' = 1.

  p4.   if x isn't 1, then there is a y in n such that y' = x.

  p5.   if s is a subset of n, 1 is in s, and the implication

      (x in s => x' in s) holds, then s = n.

then you have to define addition recursively:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 1, then define a + b = a'

      (using p1 and p2). if b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in n

      (using p4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

then you have to define 2:

  def:   2 = 1'

2 is in n by p1, p2, and the definition of 2.

theorem:   1 + 1 = 2

proof: use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

      then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

note: there is an alternate formulation of the peano postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in p1, p3, p4, and p5. then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 0, then define a + b = a.

      if b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in n, and define

      a + b = (a + c)'.

you also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. then the proof of the

theorem above is a little different:

proof: use the second part of the definition of + first:

      1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

      now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

      parentheses:   1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

irst, find the z score of a score of 80. this is given by the formula z = (x-u)/o, where x is the score, u is the mean, and o is the standard deviation. this gives

z = (80-78)/12 = 1/6 = .1667

now, find what percentile a z score of 1/6 correlates to in the normal distribution.

a z score of 1/6 = .1667 is equivalent to the 56.36th percentile of the distribution. so the probability a score is over this is 1-.5636 = .4364

the mean of a sample mean is equal to the original mean. however, the standard deviation of a sample mean is equal to the original standard deviation divided by the square root of n (sample size). so the new standard deviation is 12/sqrt(16) = 3.

the new z score is 80-78/3 = 2/3 = .667. this is equivalent to the 74.86th percentile. so the probability that the mean will be greater than this score is 1-.7486 = .2514.

w< 4

step-by-step explanation: