The price of a television is marked down for a weekend sale. After the sale is over, the price of the television is back to its original price. Are the percent of decrease and the percent of increase the same? Explain your thinking

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  No. The bases for computing percentages are different.

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose the original price is $100 and it is marked down 20%. Then the amount of markdown is 0.20×$100 = $20. The marked-down price is then $100 -20 = $80.

After the sale, the price increase of $20 is computed using the base price of $80:

  increase % = $20/$80 × 100% = 25%

The percentage decrease and increase are different because they are computed using different numbers as the reference.

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Additional comment

The closer to zero the percentages are, the closer they are to being the same. A 1% markdown will equate to a 1.010101...% markup, for example.

it's d.

step-by-step explanation:

because: -1(4x + 1y) +2 (1x-3y) distribute each number into the parenthesis.

then you would get: -4x - 1y + 2x -6y combine like terms

and get: 2x -7y

hope my answer has you if not then i'm sorry.

step-by-step explanation:

the original amount doesn't ''re just looking for the time it takes for 1/2 of the substance to we have

(1/2) =)     take the ln   of both sides

ln (1/2)   = )   and we can write

ln(1/2) = ) lne     and lne   = 1     so we have

ln(1/2) = -.1092t     divide both sides by -.1092

t = ln(1/2)/-.1092 = about 6.347 days = about 6.3 days (rounded)