When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values. True or false

Thus, the statement is False!

Step-by-step explanation:

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.

For example:

Considering a function

Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.

But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.

Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.

Thus, the statement is False!

answer:

payment just for service  

→

$

87.12

payment for service including tax

→

$

94.09

explanation:

service only with 20% tip  

→

$

72.6

(

1

+

20

100

)

=

$

87.12

in the opening of the question the word 'service' is associated only with the pretax value.

the closing part of the question asks: how much did she pay for the  

service

−−−−−−  

so technically the answer is  

→

$

72.6

(

1

+

20

100

)

=

$

87.12

however, the intention of the question provider may have been that your answer is to be  

$

87.12

(

1

+

8

100

)

=

$

94.09

to 2 decimal places.

'

payment just for service  

→

$

87.12

payment for service including tax

→

$

94.09

tony b

mar 21, 2017

answer:

trying to explain it another way

explanation:

service charge  

.

→

$

72.60

20% tip  

20

100

×

$

72.60

=

$

14.52

−−−−−−  

←

add

$

87.12

tax  

8

100

×

$

87.12

=

$

6.97

−−−−−  

←

add

$

94.09

related questions

hello from mrbilldoesmath!

answer:

the domain is the set { -2, 0, 2, 3}

discussion:

the domain is the set of x values in the ordered pairs (x,y). taking the x, or first component, of each ordered pair gives   -2, 0, 2, 3.

you,

mrb