Which of the following best explains whether 1
2
or 1 is the better estimate of
36
40
?

A.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is less than 40,
36
40
is closer to
1
2
than it is to 1.

B.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is closer to 20 than it is to 40,
36
40
is closer to
1
2
than it is to 1.

C.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is exactly halfway between 20 and 40,
36
40
is as close to
1
2
as it is to 1.

D.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20,
36
40
is closer to 1 than it is to
1
2
.

3 / 3
2 of 3 Answered