Triangle 1 has vertices at (A, B), (C, D), and (E, F). Triangle 2 has vertices at (A+1,B+3), (C+1,D+3), and (E+1,F+3). What can you conclude about triangle 2?

Given:

Triangle 1 has vertices at (A,B), (C,D), and (E,F).

Triangle 2 has vertices at (A+1,B+3), (C+1,D+3), and (E+1,F+3).

To find:

The conclusion about the triangle 2.

Solution:

From the given information it is clear that the x-coordinates of the vertices of triangle 2 are 1 more than the x-coordinates of the vertices of triangle 1.

Similarly, the y-coordinates of the vertices of triangle 2 are 3 more than the y-coordinates of the vertices of triangle 1.

So, the rule of translation is:

It means the triangle 1 is shifted 1 unit right and 3 units up to get the triangle 2.

Therefore, triangle 2 is congruent to triangle 1 and triangle 2 is the translation of triangle 1 by 1 unit right and 3 units up.

need points to ask question

step-by-step explanation:

i think the answer is b.

step-by-step explanation:

not 100% sure though.