Help please and give reasoning

d. LK, LJ, JK

Step-by-step explanation:

first, let's compare the values of the angles

m∡J < m∡K<m∡L (because of algebra)

(33°<71°<76°)

side-angle inequality states that the side opposite to the largest angle is the longest side, the side opposite to the 2nd largest angle is the 2nd longest side, and the side opposite to the smallest angle is the shortest side

the side opposite from m∡J (LK) is the shortest, as m∡J has the smallest value (this is because of side-angle inequality)

the side opposite from m∡K (LJ) is the 2nd shortest, as m∡K has the 2nd-smallest value (this is because of side-angle inequality)

the side opposite from m∡L (JK) is the longest, as m∡L has the largest value (because of side angle-inequality)

written as an inequality, the sides from smallest to largest are:

LK<LJ<JK (because of substitution and side-angle inequality)

so listed from shortest to longest:

LK, LJ, JK

therefore the answer is d

Hope this helps!

i don't even know man. edge inuity be messing with us. i had to ask a question too.

is means division by fractions

step-by-step explanation: