The law of cosines reduces to the pythagorean theorem whenever the triangle is acute. true or false

The given statement is False.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us suppose a triangle ABC.

The law of cosine is given by

And the Pythagorean theorem is given by

Now, in order to the law of cosine to be in the form of Pythagorean theorem, we must have 2abcos C =0.

a and b can't be zero since it represent the sides of the triangle. Hence, we have

cos C= 0

thus, the value of C is 90 degrees. Hence, the triangle must be a right angle triangle.

Thus, the triangle shouldn't be acute triangle.

Therefore, the given statement is false/

no association

step-by-step explanation:

if you have eyes and you can use them efficiently you can see that it just looks like random dots like do a line of best fit and like they're so spread out it's such a weak association you might as well consider it nonexistent