Are F(x) and G(x) inverse functions across the domain (3,700)? F(x) = VX-3 +8
G(X) = (x+8)2 - 3
A. No, because (x+8)-3--VX-3+8].
O B. Yes, because (x+8)* - 3 - -[1X - 3+8].
C. Yes, because yG(x) -3 +8 = x.
O D. No, because 6(x)- 3 +8+x.

add an image !

step-by-step explanation:

answer: sorry i can't you.

step-by-step explanation:

describing distributions is one of the key skills you’ll need to earn a high score on the ap statistics exam. if you need proof of this, just flip through some past exam questions, which can be found at the collegeboard website. you’ll notice that the first free response question is almost always a question requiring you to look at a graph and describe it.

step-by-step explanation: just trying to get points sorry : (

guess at question:

a vertical line intersects the graph of g(x,y) = 0 at two points. what conclusion follows about the function f(x) implicitly defined by g(x,f(x)) = 0?

the domain of f(x) cannot include the x coordinate of any such vertical line.

informally, f(x) is not a function, and

g(x,y)=0 cannot be solved for y uniquely.

the relation r = {(x,y) such that g(x,y) = 0} is a function if

for all (a,b) ∊ r and (c,d) ∊ r, a=c implies b=d.

step-by-step explanation: