Joe said that if you roll a number cube 6 times, one of those rolls will be a 1. Was Joe correct? Why or why not.

80π/3 or about 83.775

step-by-step explanation:

since a cone is 1/3 of a cylinder, we need to find the base's area. since area = πr^2, we get 16π. then, multiplying this by 5, we get 80π. dividing by 3, since the cone's volume is 1/3 of that of a cylinder's, we get 80π/3.

hope this !

the functions have the same rate of change i think. i narrowed it down to this answer and "the rate of change of tour 1 is greater" but i got it wrong using that answer so im assuming its the answer above. (this is a question i also answered from the iready site if anyone needs a reference)