Need some help please and thank u

.there can be infinite values of m and n that can satisfy the above equation. for each value of m of m or n. there maybe infinite sets of solution for the above

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is:

the answer is:

to solve the problem, we need to remember the quotient of power property, it's defined by the following relation:

if we have a quotienf of powers that have the same base, we need to keep the same base and subtract the exponent of the denominator power to the exponent of the numerator power.

so, we are given the expression:

then, calculating we have:

hence, the answer is:

have a nice day!

idk

step-by-step explanation: