Simplify this math problem plz show your work

1,150 give brainliest

step-by-step explanation

2r= 2300

r =1150

.there can be infinite values of m and n that can satisfy the above equation. for each value of m of m or n. there maybe infinite sets of solution for the above

step-by-step explanation:

since we know that the two functions are equal, f (x) = g

(x), therefore when we equate the two equations the result should be similar to

3x = x – 4:

a. f(x) = 3x, g(x) = x – 4

equating the two functions:

3x = x – 4             (correct)

so we now got our answer (a)