A sample tested the claim that heights of men and heights of women have difference​ variances, with s=7.42388 cm for women and 7.14974 cm for men. The sample sizes are n1=144 and n2=156. When using the F test with these​ data, is it correct to reason that there is no need to check for normality because n1>30 and n2>​30?

No. The F test has a requirement that samples be from the normally distributed populations, regardless of how large the samples are.

The F-test simply shows whether the variances that are in the numerator and the denominator are equal. The F-test can be applied on a large sampled population.

One main assumption of the F test is that the populations where the two samples are drawn are normally distributed.

Regarding the question, it's important to note that when using the F test with these​ data, it's not correct to reason that there is no need to check for "normality".

It should be noted that the F test has a requirement that samples are from the normally distributed populations, regardless of how large such samples are.

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15

step-by-step explanation:

we are given the following expression and we are to solve it and find the product:

-13 × (-5)

solving the given expression in the standard order of solving a mathematical expression, beginning with the opening of brackets and then multiplying the terms and changing their signs.

-3 × -5 = 15 (answer is positive because when negative is multiplied with negative, it gives a positive answer)

step-by-step explanation: