I don’t understand this

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Statement 1: If JK and LM bisect each other then, they divide each other in 2 equal parts.

So,

JP = PK [Because of statement 1]

MP = PL [Because of statement 1]

∠JPM = ∠LPK [Because they are vertically opposite angles]

So, ΔJPM ≅ to ΔKPL [By SAS congruence criteria of triangle]

the answer is d

the answer is in the first quadrant, which make the y-int positive.

since the dots are going down, therefore the correlation is negative

i hope it is right.