Mathematics, 02.08.2019 19:00 syong
Which of the following best explains whether 1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40 ? a. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1 . since 36 is less than 40, 36/40 is closer to 1/2 than it is to 1. b. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1 . since 36 is closer to 20 than it is to 40, 36/40 is closer to 1/2 than it is to 1. c. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1 . since 36 is exactly halfway between 20 and 40, 36/40 is as close to 1/2 as it is to 1. d. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1 . since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20, 36/40 is closer to 1 than it is to 1/2 .
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Which of the following best explains whether 1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40 ? a. 20/40 =...
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