1. over the past two decades, studies have shown that offending among women has increased globally. why do you think this is?

2. during the 1960s, criminologist Frieda Adler suggested that lowering gender gap would result in more crimes committed by women. Yet ancient evidence suggest that women have been committing crimes for centuries. Do you think Adler’s claim is a sound explanation for the current rate of female offenders? why or why not ?Someone help please

Explanation:

1. I think that women globally are starting to show their sensitivities towards comments, actions, and laws that directly affect them which is leading to more getting offended. I also believe that it's becoming more socially acceptable to state what's bothering you and some women who experience discrimination or even just a mean comment are feeling more and more like they are allowed and should state that the actions of others are offensive.

2. I don't believe that's the reason. On the contrary I believe that more crime would be committed by women if they were to increase the gender gap. I do think there are other sound reasons for the increase in female offenders but again I do not believe that Frieda Alder's suggestion is even accurate.

I hope I was of help!

Signed your friendly neighborhood struggling student

Toodles ✌

true

explanation:

hello,

answer: a federal government has final authority on interstate/inter provincial  and international affairs, a confederation is one where the central/national government or authority is governing body what does not have final say over the same matters. hopefully this and i will try again if you don't like this answer : )

best of luck!