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vì sao chỉ đến khi chủ nghĩa tư bản được xác lập sức lao động mới trở thành hàng hóa. Trong trường hợp tỷ suất giá trị thặng dư là 100%, nếu nhà tư bản trả một lượng tiền công ngang bằng với lượng giá trị sức lao động thì người lao động có bị bóc lột trong quá trình lao động không? Vì sao?

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vì sao chỉ đến khi chủ nghĩa tư bản được xác lập sức lao động mới trở thành hàng hóa. Trong trường h...
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