The f1 generation differed from the f2 in mendel's experiments in that all of the f1 showed the dominant phenotype, and all of the f2 showed the recessive phenotype one-half of the f1 showed the dominant phenotype, and three-fourths of the f2 did all of the f1 showed the dominant phenotype, but only three-fourths of the f2 did none of the f1 showed the dominant phenotype, but one-half of the f2 did all of the f1 showed the dominant phenotype, whereas only half of the f2 did

The F1 generation differed from the F2 in the Mendel's experiments in that all the F1 generation showed the dominant phenotype, however only three- fourths or three quarters of the F2 generation did. This is because all the F1 generation were heterozygous and thus the dominant phenotype was expressed, while in the F2 generation there was a mixture of homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive and heterozygous. Therefore, the heterozygotes and the homozygotes dominant showed a dominant phenotype.

Ithink it’s b but not 100% sure