15 pts. prove that the function f from r to (0, oo) is bijective if - f(x)=x2 if r- hint: each piece of the function to "cover" information to break your proof(s) into cases. part of (0, you may want to use this

Answer with explanation:

Given the function f from R  to

f:

To prove that  the function is objective from R to  

Proof:

When we prove the function is bijective then we proves that function is one-one and onto.

First we prove that function is one-one

Let

Cancel power on both side then we get

Hence, the function is one-one on domain [tex[(0,\infty)[/tex].

Now , we prove that function is onto function.

Let - f(x)=y

Then we get

The value of y is taken from

Therefore, we can find pre image  for every value of y.

Hence, the function is onto function on domain

Therefore, the given is bijective function on not on  whole domain  R .

Hence, proved.

the answer is 200

step-by-step explanation:

the way the question is worded, it seems to imply the $264 interest is simple interest, not compound interest.

the simple interest for 2 years is $264; the simple interest for 1 year is $132.

$132 interest on a $600 investment means an interest rate of (132/600)*100 = 22%.

the value of $200 at 22% interest compounded annually for three years is

200%281.22%29%5e3

the amount of interest is that value, minus the original $200.