Is rationalizing a denominator is the same as multiplying by 1?

Step-by-step explanation:

yes.  

Assume you have the function:

Then in order to rationalize the denominator, you'd multiply the whole function by 1:

check the links in the comments above, notice on all those links, we multiply top and bottom always by the same value, it being the conjugate pair or just a rational or something else, is the same value atop and below.

now, what is same over same?

so you see, we're really always multiplying the fraction by 1, so its top and bottom are just 1 in disguise.

the temperature will be -18 just do 62 + (-40) + (-40)

step-by-step explanation:

the ratio of white tiles to blue tiles is 48: 16. the ratio in it's simplest form is 3: 1.

step-by-step explanation:

ratio: take the first number and add a colon next to it, then add the second number after that. make sure the ratio order matches up with the written problem!

simplest form: we can simplify the ratio 48 : 16 by dividing both terms by the greatest common factor (gcf).

the gcf of 48 and 16 is 16.

divide both terms by 16:

48 ÷ 16 = 3

16 ÷ 16 = 1

reducing to simplest form:

48 : 16 = 3 : 1