In a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about their past travel experience. a. is this a binomial experiment? why or why not? b. what is the probability that in a random sample of 2, no one has been abroad?

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that in a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. Two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about their past travel experience.

Since the two are drawn without replacement the first trial affects the second trial.  In other words, each trial is not independent of the other.

a) Hence this cannot be binomial experiment.  The reason is p=probability for each trial is not constant as first draw affect the probability for Ii draw

b) The probability that in a random sample of 2, no one has been abroad

=Prob of selecting both people from the group where no one has been abroad

We have in the group 35% i.e. 14 people never been to abroad

So required probability = Prob of selecting both from 14 people

=

because its not ur topic and its not for is for homework not that.

so firstly, we need to isolate the y variables to be able to solve these inequalities. firstly, add 0.5x on both sides of the first inequality and subtract 1.5x on both sides of the second inequality:

now since the slope is positive for the first inequality, this means that the line going upwards belongs to the first inequality, and the line going downwards belongs to the second inequality.

next, since y ≥ in the first inequality, this means that the shaded region will be above the first inequality's line, thus shading regions a and b.

next, since y ≤ in the second inequality, this means that the shaded region is going to be below this line, thus shading regions a and c.

since both lines shade region a, this means that region a is the solution.

step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest!