what is meant by hence a theory which leads to an examination of the psychological and historical origin of people's moral opinions should be more useful than a theory which postulates moral truths enunciated by self-evident intuitions that are unchangeable

Answer and Explanation:

This means that a theory which leads to imposing moral standards universally without regard to people's historical and psychological differences are based off of subjectivism and lack any form of  thorough investigation(normative science). This is self explanatory in the question where it says  "...postulates moral truths enunciated by self-evident intuitions that are unchangeable". Moral standards such as this are mostly based on traditions that are subjective and are not given to transparency. This is opposed to when questions may be asked and investigations come into play as to why a particular moral opinion is taken enabling a society appreciate or understand a moral stance based on it's historical, cultural or psychological origins.

in 342 bc j._c. egypt fell into the hands of the persians, under the reign of nectanebo ii

greek city-states unite in a revolt against the persian empire at the beginning of the fifth century bc. j.-c  

from the year 660 or 659 bc ad, cyrus preached the revolt against the medes to deliver the persians.

in an absolute  monarchy, the  monarchrules as an autocrat, with absolutepower  over the state and government — for example, the right to rule by decree, promulgate laws, and impose punishments. the  monarch isnominally sovereign but the electorate, through their legislature, exercise political sovereignty.